The solution provided made use of the taylor expansion of $\sin z$ which i thought was quite tedious.
My solution:
On $|z|=1$, $\overline z=\frac{1}{z} $ Hence, $\int_{|z|=1} f(z) \,\mathrm dz$ = $\int_{|z|=1}(\overline z)^2\sin z \,\mathrm dz$ = $\int_{|z|=1} \frac{\sin z}{z^2}\,\mathrm dz$.
The second integral can be solved using Riemann integral formula which gives 2$\pi$i which is also the answer. Is my solution correct?
Just by applying Cauchy's integral formula $$f'(0)=\frac{1}{2\pi i}\int\limits_{|z|=1} \frac{f(z)}{z^2}dz$$ where $f(z)=\sin{z} \Rightarrow f'(z)=\cos{z} \Rightarrow f'(0)=1$.