Find $\sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{{(-1)^k}}{k+1}{n \choose k}$ as a function of n.
I have done it in the following way:
Notice first that $\sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{{(-1)^k}}{k+1}{n \choose k} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{k+1}{n \choose k}$ Because for $k > n$ we have $n \choose k$ = 0.
Now, using the binomial theorem:
$$(1+x)^n =\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}{n \choose k}x^k $$
$$(1-x)^n =\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}(-1)^k{n \choose k}x^k $$
$$\int(1-x)^ndx =\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}[(-1)^k{n \choose k}\int x^kdx] $$
$$ - \frac{(1-x)^{n+1}}{n+1} =\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{k+1}{n \choose k}x^{k+1}$$
Now let x = 1 and we get:
$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{k+1}{n \choose k} = - \frac{(1-1)^{n+1}}{n+1} = 0$$
However, the correct solution is $\frac{1}{n+1}$ and not $0$.
I cant find my mistake, can someone help me find it please? Thank you!
Edit: I have seen different ways to prove my question, but I would still like to know where is my mistake so i would know how to avoid it in the next time.
The problem is, when you integrated both sides, you forgot the constant of integration.
Instead of indefinite integration, you should apply the operator $\int_0^x$ to both sides. This does what you want on the right hand side, because $$ \int_0^x \chi^k d\chi= \frac {x^{k+1}}{k+1} $$ On the LHS, you will have $\int_0^x(1-\chi)^nd\chi$ which will provide the missing $1/(n+1)$.