Since it is obvious that $\int\int_D1\space\mathrm{d}A$ is the area of $A$, my book suggests we can use green's theorem $\int_C{P\mathrm{d}x+Q\mathrm{d}y}=\int\int_d{(\frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial P}{\partial y})\mathrm{d}A}$, to compute area where $\frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial P}{\partial y}=1$ to compute the area.
The book gives a list of conditions for which this is true, most of them fairly trivial (ie, $P(x,y)=0 \space \mathrm{and} \space Q(x,y) = x$).
Assuming the veracity of green's theorem itself, this is not hard to understand. However, I can't reconcile this with the example that follows immediately:
Find the area enclosed by the ellipse $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1$.
It makes use of the formula $A=\frac{1}{2}\int_c{x\mathrm{d}y-y\mathrm{d}x}$.
Sadly, I have become hopelessly stuck trying to show $\frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial P}{\partial y}=1$ in this case; therefore, while I could apply this method mechanically, I have no idea when it is appropriate to do so.
Would someone be so kind as to explain this?
With $A=\frac 1 2 \int_C xdy - ydx$ we have $P=-\frac 12 y$ and $Q=\frac 12 x$.
What do you get if you calculate $\frac{\partial Q}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial P}{\partial y}$ of that?