I'm computing $$\int_1^\infty\frac{\ln(x)}{x^2}\,dx.$$
I have the proper antiderivative.
My first strategy in finding the limit involved splitting the limit into two, resulting in:
lim t>inf (-ln(x)/x) - lim t>inf (1/x), evaluated from 1 to t
I then used L'Hospital's rule to eliminate inf/inf in the first limit, and then evaluated each from 1 to t.
Using this method, I got 2.
Then I did the same thing, but kept the fraction intact: -(ln(x) + 1)/x. Using L'HR here and then evaluating from 1 to t, I got 1 (which is the answer all the calculators give me).
What am I missing with the first method? Did I not use L'HR properly (only on one of the limits). Obviously, the second method gets rid of the 1/x when using L'HR, but I can't find something that tells me I can't do that. Even my professor is stumped right now.
Thanks
Notice that $$\int_1^\infty \frac{\log x}{x^2}dx = \lim_{t\to\infty}\int_1^t \frac{\log x}{x^2}dx = \lim_{t\to\infty}\left.-\frac{\log x}{x}\right\rvert^t_1+\int_1^\infty\frac{dx}{x^2}= \lim_{t\to\infty}\left.-\frac{\log x}{x}\right\rvert^t_1\left.-\frac1x\right\rvert^t_1.$$ Now, both limits exist independently and \begin{aligned} \lim_{t\to\infty}\frac{\log t}{t} = \lim_{t\to\infty}\frac 1t = 0. \end{aligned} Therefore, since $\log 1 = 0$, $$\int_1^\infty \frac{\log x}{x^2}dx = 1.$$