I have to find : $$l=\lim\limits_{x \to 0^{+}}\dfrac{\ln(x)}{\ln(\tan^2(x))}$$ As both $\ln(x)$ and $\ln(\tan^2(x))$ $\rightarrow 0$ when $x \rightarrow 0^{+}$ I can use L'Hopital's rule. We have that: $$ \begin{align} \left(\frac{\ln(x)}{\ln(\tan^2(x))}\right)' =& \frac{1/x}{1/(\sin^2(x)/\cos^2(x)) \cdot 2 \cdot (\sin(x)/\cos(x)) \cdot 1/(\cos^2(x))} \\ =& \frac{1/x}{2/(\cos(x)\sin(x))}\\ =&\frac{\cos(x)\sin(x)}{2x} \end{align} $$
and if I differentiate this once again I have that
$$\frac{-\sin^2(x)+\cos^2(x)}{2} \rightarrow \frac{1}{2}$$ when $x \rightarrow 0^{+}$
Is this correct? Thanks!
As pointed out by Luke the given limit is in $\frac {-\infty} {-\infty}$ form.
Otherwise what you have done is correct but you don't have to apply L'Hopital's rule a second time. Just use the facts that $\cos x \to 1$ and $\frac {\sin x } x \to 1$.