I want to prove that if $\alpha < \dfrac{1}{3}$, then $$\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}(1-\alpha^n) = \dfrac{1-3\alpha}{1-2\alpha}.$$
I've proved (after some calculations) that if $$P = (1-\alpha)(1-\alpha^2)(1-\alpha^3)(1-\alpha^4)\ldots,$$ then $$P = 1-\alpha-\alpha^2+\alpha^5+\alpha^7-\alpha^{12}-\alpha^{15}+\alpha^{22}+\alpha^{26}-\alpha^{35}-\alpha^{40}+\alpha^{51}+... $$
where the behaviour of the exponent is given by:
- the odd positions from $\alpha^2$, the exponents are given by the sequence of general term $a_n = \dfrac{3n^2+n}{2}$,
- the difference between the exponent of the even possitions on the right side of the pow described in the item before is given by the sequence of odd numbers from $3$,
- the terms before $\alpha^7$ are computed expanding the product,
- the sign of the terms of the sequence change each two positions.
For example, if we want to compute the exponent in the 6th position (which is $12$), which is an even position, has to differ from the previous exponent, which is $7$, in $5$. Then, the exponent has to be $12$. To compute the exponent in the 7th position, which is odd, we use the formula $a_n=\dfrac{3n^2+n}{2}$; this exponent is the third one in the odd positions, therefore it corresponds to $n=3$, i.e., $a_3 = \dfrac{3\cdot 3^2+3}{2}=15$, and so on.
I have my mind open to other procedures or explanations, and I really appreciate any proof.
This is false. In fact $\prod (1 - \alpha^n)$ is not a rational function of $\alpha$ at all; it is closely related to the Dedekind eta function and has many properties that no rational function can have, for example:
Re: the third point, it's easy to check that the Taylor series expansion of $\frac{1 - 3 \alpha}{1 - 2 \alpha}$ begins $1 - \alpha - 2 \alpha^2 - \dots$ which already disagrees with the expansion of $\prod (1 - \alpha^n)$ starting at the quadratic term, which is maybe the shortest way to see that the desired identity can't hold, but the other arguments are more general.