If $(X,\mathcal{\tau})$ is a topological space, a subset $A\subseteq (X,\mathcal{\tau})$ is said to have the property of Baire if it is expressible in the form $G\triangle M$ where $G\subseteq (X,\mathcal{\tau})$ is open and $M\subseteq (X,\mathcal{\tau})$ is meager. That is, $A\subseteq (X,\mathcal{\tau})$ has the property of Baire if there exists an open set $G\subseteq (X,\mathcal{\tau})$ such that $A\triangle G$ is meager.
Suppose now that $X=\{a,b\}$ is a discrete space so that $(X,\mathcal{\tau})=\{\emptyset,\{a\},\{b\},\{a,b\}\}$.
What does that concretely mean for the subset $A=\{a\}$ to have the property of Baire? I mean what could be the sets $G$ and $M$ is that particular case?
I know that, in that topology, the only one set which is meager is the empty set $\emptyset$. Does that mean that $G$ can only be $A$ itself (because $A\triangle A=\emptyset$), or could $G$ be something else?
The definition of meager is the countable union of nowhere dense sets. In a finite space, it just means a nowhere dense set. But the only nowhere dense set in a discrete finite space is $\varnothing$.
So yes, the only witness that $A$ has the Baire property is $A$ itself.