I have a question concerning the definition of strictly increasing function, that I cannot really figure out. The definition reads:
Definition: A function $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ is strictly increasing if $$\forall a, b \ ( a > b \Longrightarrow f(a) > f(b) ).$$
My question is: Why do we have just one conditional and not a biconditional?
That is, why the definition is not the following?
A function $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ is strictly increasing if $$\forall a, b \ ( a > b \Longleftrightarrow f(a) > f(b) ).$$
That's how I see it: we don't want to have that $a > b$, and $f(a) \leq f(b)$ (fine with me); but I don't see why we accept to have in principle that $a \leq b$, and $f(a) > f(b)$.
Any feedback is most welcome.
Thank you for your time.
PS: Of course, this is just a particular case of a problem I have with definitions that involve conditionals.
I think that the trouble is with the "asymmetry" of $<$.
If we use $↔$, we have that the definition of increasing will be:
and that of strictly increasing will be:
We have to consider that $P ↔ Q$ is equivalent to $¬P ↔ ¬Q$, and thus the last one is equivalent to:
The case when $x=y$ is not interesting (because for any function : $f(x)=f(y)$, if $x=y$) and thus we have that the new definition of strictly increasing amounts to :
that coincides with (non-strict) increasing.