I was hoping I could get some resolution on this problem of mine. I had to create a metric on the set of continuous functions on $[0,1]$ and I came up with this $$d(f,g) = \sup\left\{\left| \int_a^b(f-g)(x)\, \mathrm dx\right| : a,b\in\mathbb{R}\cap[0,1]\right\}$$
I know that a better solution would be to put the absolute values inside the integral enclosing $f-g$, but I didn't think of that at the time.
Anyway, I'm rather convinced that this isn't a metric as my proof is a little handwavy, (mainly the part of $d(f,g)=0 \implies f=g$), but my professor is somewhat convinced it is a metric regardless of my proof.
I'd be grateful if anyone could perhaps confirm whether or not this is indeed a metric, and if possible, give me tips on how to improve my proof if necessary.
Thanks a ton. The proof for the difficult part is below (The other parts for a metric are more or less trivial)
Proof for the part in question:

I think the problem with the proof is the conclusion from $\int_u^v (f(x)-g(x))dx =0$ to existence of some $x_0\in[u,v]$ such that $f(x_0) \neq g(x_0)$. How do you derive this in detail?