I an studying the example-1.
I understand $f(z)=e^z$ has a nonzero derivative at all points, hence it is everywhere conformal and locally $1-1$.
But I dont understand th part I underlined with yellow pencil. Please explain it. Thank you so much:)

I an studying the example-1.
I understand $f(z)=e^z$ has a nonzero derivative at all points, hence it is everywhere conformal and locally $1-1$.
But I dont understand th part I underlined with yellow pencil. Please explain it. Thank you so much:)

$z=x+iy$, $f(z)=e^z$, so $e^{c+iy}=e^c(\cos y+i\sin y)$ assuming $x=c$ constant is a circle with radius $e^c$
and $e^{x+ic}=e^x(\cos c+i\sin c)$
The Modulus of $f(z) = e^x,$ argument $f(z) = y.$
Horizontal lines in the cartesian plane have a constant $y$ value so the argument of the map of the horizontal line is also constant while the norm changes with $e^x$ so horizontal lines are mapped to rays with argument $y.$
vertical lines have a constant $x$ component so the map of vertical lines have a constant modulus so vertical lines get mapped to circles centered at the origin with radius $e^x$