I wanted to come up with a proof using contrapositive, so I needed the negation of the following: "one of x and y is congruent to 1 modulo 6 while the other is congruent to 5 modulo 6."
I interpreted this statement as being the same as "one of x and y is congruent to 1 modulo 6 and the other is congruent to 5 modulo 6", so the negation I got was "one of x and y is not congruent to 1 modulo 6 or the other is not congruent to 5 modulo 6".
Turns out the negation is "one of x and y is not congruent to 1 or 5 modulo 6."
I'm not seeing it. Please help me understand.
Without loss of generality, we may assume your statement is, in effect,
$$x \equiv 1 \pmod 6 \land y \equiv 5 \pmod 6$$
(This is equivalent since, in the end, the assignments of $x,y$ are arbitrary since they're not further defined outside of these properties.) Then why is the negation of this
$$x \not \equiv 1 \pmod 6 \lor y \not \equiv 5 \pmod 6$$
instead of your suggestion?
The issue lies, fundamentally, with the logical "and" ($\land$) operator. If $P \land Q$ is true, that means $P,Q$ individually are both true. What would be the negation of that, then? It would be whenever $P \land Q$ is false, i.e. one of the following holds:
This can be summarized more succinctly as "at least one of $P,Q$ are false," or perhaps even more clearly as "$P$ is false or $Q$ is false."
Symbolically, this would be notated $\neg (P \land Q) = \neg P \lor \neg Q$ -- the negation of an "and" statement, in other words, is one of the comprising statements of it is false.