I have some questions regarding the proposal distribution which is $N(x,1)$
Is the proposal distribution symmetric i.e. $g(x_p|x)=g(x|x_p)$?
I'm not sure whether it is correct: let's x=0 first, and rand() in excel gives 0.95 as culumative probability so $x_p=1.64$ and $g(1.64|0)=0.95$, but how come $g(0|1.64)$=$g(1.64|0)=0.95$?
This is a binomial example


By the way, because the shape of your distribution is much like a normal distribution with variance $1/2$, not $1$, you will probably get better performance if your sampling uses a variance $1/2$ normal r.v. rather than $1$. (That said, in general choosing the candidate distribution is more art than science: it needs to be "adventurous" enough to efficiently explore the configuration space, "conservative" enough that most jumps are accepted, and computationally tractable to draw many samples from it.)