Proposition 17.4.5 In Vakil's Foundations of Algebraic geometry states:
Suppose that $\pi: C \rightarrow C'$ is a finite morphism, where $C$ is a (pure dimension $1$) curve with no embedded points, and $C'$ a regular curve. Then $\pi_*\mathcal{O}_C$ is locally free of finite rank.
The proof boils down to showing that $C'$ is a regular integral affine curve $\operatorname{Spec}(A')$ and $C$ = $\operatorname{Spec}(A)$, then for any maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m}$ of $A'$, $A_{\mathfrak{m}}$ is a free $A_{\mathfrak{m}}$ module. $A'_{\mathfrak{m}}$ is a DVR, so we may take a uniformiser $t$ and it suffices to prove the case where $t \in A'$. Then since $A_{\mathfrak{m}}$ is a finitely generated $A'_{\mathfrak{m}}$ module, it is a direct sum of a free module and modules of the form $A'_{\mathfrak{m}}/(t^n)$ for some $n$. But if there were any components of the latter form, then the image of $t$ in $A$ would be a zero divisor.
The part that I don't understand is what follows, he says that, since any zero divisor is contained in some associated prime, there is some associated point of $C$ in $\pi^{-1}([\mathfrak{m}])$, which contradicts the fact that $C$ has no embedded points.
Firstly, I don't understand why the fact that we know the image of $t$ is contained in an associated prime of $C$ means that we know that there is an associated point in the fibre. Is it the case that any prime containing the image of $t$ maps to $[\mathfrak{m}]$? Certainly any such prime maps to a prime containing $t$, but is $\mathfrak{m}$ the only one?.
Secondly, why couldn't a generic point of $C$ map to $[\mathfrak{m}]$? I know that continuity would imply that everything in that component would then also map to $[\mathfrak{m}]$, but I'm not sure why this couldn't happen. I thought it might have something to do with the fact that finite morphisms have finite fibres, so this component must be finite, but there also exist curves with finitely many points so I don't think this leads anywhere.
I've now understood what was confusing me, and will post this answer for future readers who may have the same problem:
Given this, I can answer my questions as follows:
Firstly, at the same time as assuming $t \in A'$, we may assume that $\mathfrak{m} = (t)$, since $\mathfrak{m}$ has finitely many generators, and considering each as an element of $A'_{\mathfrak{m}}$ we see that each is of the form $t \cdot f/g$ for some $f/g \in A'_{\mathfrak{m}}$ and so by considering the distinguished affine open piece corresponding to the product of all such $g$ (of which there are finitely many) we have that $(t) = \mathfrak{m}$. It is now clear that any prime of $A$ containing the image of $t$ pulls back to a prime ideal containing $(t)$, and so equaling $\mathfrak{m}$ by maximality.
Secondly, any non-empty fibre of an integral morphism has dimension $0$ (exercise $11.1.E$ in Vakil) so, under finite (even integral) morphisms, only closed points can map to closed points (if a non-closed point mapped to a closed point, so would everything in it's closure by continuity and then the fibre would have dimension strictly positive).