For the axiom of vector space, the book says "There exists $1\in\mathbb F$, such that $1\cdot x=x, \forall x\in V$".
I am confused here. Does "$1$" means the multiplication identity in $\mathbb F$, or it depends on how we define $c\cdot x=?$ in a particular problem? To be more concrete, suppose $V=\{(a,b)|a,b\in\mathbb R \}$, and choose $\mathbb F=\mathbb R$, if we define
$$c\cdot (a,b)=(\frac c2a,b)$$
Surely this example is NOT a vector space, but it is sufficient to clarify the question. Under this definition, the scalar multiplication identity "$1$" is
$$"1"=2$$ Correct?
Just to elaborate slightly.
Let $a$ be the identity of $\Bbb F$ and let $b$ be the scalar-multiplication identity for $V$. Let $z$ denote the zero vector of $V$. As in Noah's post let $\times$ denote field multiplication and $\cdot$ denote scalar multiplication.
Then: $$a\cdot v=b\cdot(a\cdot v)=(b\times a)\cdot v=b\cdot v=v$$Therefore $a\cdot v=v$ for all $v$. Therefore $(a-b)\cdot v=z$ for all $v$. If $a-b\neq 0\in\Bbb F$ then because $\Bbb F$ is a field, there is $c$ with $c\times(a-b)=a$. Hence: $$v=a\cdot v=(c\times(a-b))\cdot v=c\cdot((a-b)\cdot v)=c\cdot z=z$$For all $v\in V$. If $V$ is not trivial i.e. contains a nonzero vector $v$, it follows from the contradiction of "$v=z,\,\forall v$" that no such $c$ can exist - it follows that $a-b$ must be zero.
Therefore, if $V$ is not the zero space, $a=b$ is forced; the scalar multiplication identity and the field multiplication identity must coincide.