Consider the following, taken from the Wikipedia article on telescoping series
It might look pedantic, but I am confused by what is a definition, and what needs proving :
1) is $ \sum_1^{\infty} (a_{n} - a_{n-1}) $ defined to be $ \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_1^{n} (a_n -a_{n-1}) $ ?
2) if so, do we need to prove that $ \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_1^{n} (a_n -a_{n-1}) = \lim_{n \to \infty} (a_n - a_0) $ or is that 'obvious' ? For instance do we need to assume actual existence of $\lim_{n \to \infty} (a_n - a_0) $ before making the statement that they are equal ?

Here are the answers to your question:-
With series, we do a similar thing. Therefore, we define partial sums. If we want to check if a series $\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty} t_n$ will "give us certain value or not", we look at what happens when we start adding the terms one by one. We define the partial sums as $S_N = \sum\limits_{n = 1}^{N} t_n$, which generates a sequence of real numbers. Now, we know about the convergence and we say that if this sequence of partial sums is convergent, then the series is also convergent.
$$S_N = \sum\limits_{n = 1}^{N} \left( a_n - a_{n - 1} \right) = \left( a_1 - a_0 \right) + \left( a_2 - a_1 \right) + \cdots + \left( a_N - a_{N - 1} \right)$$
Using the associative and commutative properties of real numbers, all terms except $a_N$ and $-a_0$ "get cancelled". Therefore, we get
$$S_N = a_N - a_0$$
Now, it is easy to see that if $\lim\limits_{N \to \infty} a_N = 0$, then $\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{\infty} = \lim\limits_{N \to \infty} S_N = - a_0$.