Conjugate of a Gauss integer also divides P

Question

So, I was reading this part in Artin's book. So it says, that if $a+bi$ divides $p$, then $a-bi$ should also divide $p$ because the conjugate of $p$ is $p$ itself. Why is this so? I feel like I am missing something important there. Here is the corresponding part from the book:

Answer 1

$a | b \implies ak = b \implies \bar{a}\bar{k} = \bar{b} \implies \bar{a}|\bar{b}$.

More generally, we have $a | b \implies \operatorname{Norm}(a) | \operatorname{Norm}(b)$.