From this note, I'm trying to solve 6.8: https://faculty.math.illinois.edu/~rezk/quasicats.pdf
I will list the necessary definitions:
And $e_0$ refers to $X(f)(e)$, where $f \colon [0] \rightarrow [1]$ such that $f(0) = 0$, and $e_1$ is similarly $X(g)(e)$, where $g \colon [0] \rightarrow [1]$ such that $g(0) = 1$.
My attempt:
I am thinking the canonical bijection is sending $[a]_{\approx_1}$ to $[a]_{\approx}$.
To show that mapping is well-defined, it suffices to show $a \sim_1 b$ implies $a \approx b$.
But this is clear since as $e_0 = a$, $e_1 = b$, so $a \approx e$ and $b \approx e$, so $a \approx b$.
To show that mapping is surjective, let $a \in X_n$,and consider $<0> \colon [0] \rightarrow [n]$ defined by $<0>(0) = 0$.
Let's write $a_0$ for $X(<0>)(a)$.
Then $a \approx a_0$, so $[a_0]_{\approx_1}$ is mapped to $[a_0]_{\approx} = [a]_{\approx}$.
The part I'm having trouble with is showing that the mapping is injective. To show injectivity, we need that for $a, b \in X_0$ such that $a \approx b$, we need $a \approx_1 b$. But I have no idea how to show this.
Thanks for your help!


If $a,b\in X_0,\ a\approx b$, then there's a sequence $a=x_0,x_1,\dots,x_k=b$ of simplices ($x_i\in \bigsqcup_n X_n$) such that $x_i\sim x_{i+1}$ or $x_{i+1}\sim x_i$ for each $i=0,1,\dots,k-1$.
In both cases, $x_i$ and $x_{i+1}$ share a common vertex, say $y_i$, and inside one simplex $x_i$ any two vertex can be connected by edges (so all vertices of $x_i$ are in the same $\approx_1$ class), so there's a path of edges $a\leadsto y_0\leadsto y_1\dots\leadsto b$.