For a matrix $A_{m\times n},$ $r(A)=r.$ $A_{m\times n}=B_{m\times r}C_{r\times n},$ $r(B)=r(C)=r.$ This is called a full rank decomposition of $A$. The existence is easy, while we have the uniqueness in following meaning.
For two full rank decompositions $A=B_1C_1=B_2C_2,$ we have $B_1=B_2P$ and $C_1=P^{-1}C_2.$ $P_{r\times r}$ is a full rank matrix.
I thought it for quite a long time, hoping to find an brief answer but failed. I searched on MSE but didn't seek out similar questions. Then I tried it myself, using a quite brutal method. At last I succeed, and every step seems reasonable. As there's no similar question on MSE, I decide to post it as a Q&A by myself. Also, I hope someone can figure out a brief answer.
If I understood correctly, you are interested in proving the following statement.
To prove this, I will make use of the following result.
In the above, $I_n$ denotes the identity matrix of size $n \times n$. This statement has been proved before on this site; I'll link a proof if I find one.
With that claim, proceed as follows. Let $Q_1$ denote a matrix such that $C_1Q_1 = I_r$ (which is guaranteed to exist by the claim above). We have $$ B_1C_1 = B_2 C_2 \implies \\ B_1C_1Q_1 = B_2 C_2Q_1 \implies\\ B_1 = B_2 (C_2Q_1). $$ Now, I claim that $P = C_2Q_1$ is invertible. Indeed, if this were not the case, then it would follow that the rank of $P$ is less than $r$, which would imply that $B_1 = B_2 P$ has rank less than $r$, which contradicts our initial supposition.
Thus, we have $$ A = B_1 C_1 = (B_2 P)C_1 = B_2C_2. $$ Using the claim again, let $Q_2$ denote a matrix such that $Q_2 B_2 = I_r$. We note that $$ B_2 PC_1 = B_2C_2 \implies\\ Q_2 B_2 PC_1 = Q_2B_2 C_2 \implies\\ PC_1 = C_2 \implies\\ C_1 = P^{-1}C_2, $$ which was what we wanted.