I'am quite curious about how to construct a nonnegative $C_0^\infty$ function $f(x)$ satisfying for $1<p<\infty$ $$ f(0)=1~~~~~\text{and}~~~~~\sum_{k\in \mathbb Z^n}f(x+k)^p=1. $$
It seems easy to construct such a function in $\mathbb R^1$.
We first construct a nonnegative radial function $f\in C_0^\infty(\mathbb R^1)$ and $\operatorname{supp}f\subset (-1,1)$. $f$ also satisfies $f(0)=1$ and $f(\tfrac 12)=\tfrac 12$. (We can ask for such $f$ equals to 1 in a small neighborhood of $0$.)
Then we ask that $f(x)+f(x-1)=1$ for $x\in [0,1)$. Note that this can be done if we first aske for the smoothness in $[0,1/2)$ and just by let $f(1-x)=1-f(x)$ for $x\in (0,1/2)$.
And just by letting $g(x)=f(x)^{1/p}$, we finish this.
My question is:
(1) We know that the lattices contained in the unit ball is related to the dimension, and how to extending the construction to $\mathbb R^n$ (It can not be just rotation to get a $\mathbb R^n$ function.)
(2) I think there are some other convenient way to constrcut such a funcion.
(3) I think the construction has nothing to do with $p$, is it right?
Thanks in advance. I hope to get some help from you.
The answer is rather simple. First, let $h(x) = e^{-1/x}$ for $x>0$, otherwise $0$. And let $f(x)=\frac{h(1-|x|)} {h(1-|x|) + h(|x|)}$ for $x \in \mathbb{R}$.
Also, constructing such a function in $\mathbb{R}^n$ is not difficult: $$F_n(x) = \prod_{j=1}^{n} f(x_j)$$ Where $x = (x_1,x_2, \cdots, x_n)$.
We can prove that $$ \sum_{k \in \mathbb{Z}^n} F_n(x+k) = \sum_{k_1, \cdots, k_n \in \mathbb{Z}}\prod_{j=1}^{n} f(x_j+k_j) = \prod_{j=1}^{n} \sum_{k_j \in \mathbb{Z}}f(x_j+k_j) = \prod_{j=1}^{n}1=1$$ Then let $G_n = F_n^{1/p}$.
Does this solve your problem? I think this construction is convenient enough.