I was asked to find the contour integral $dz/z$ of a triangle with vertices $1-2i$, $-2+i$ and $1+i$.
I am not sure how to begin this but my professor said that it would be:
$$\int_{-1}^{2} \frac{-i}{1-ti} dt$$
But this doesn't make sense to me. why would $z$ be equal to $1-ti$? I can see he may be working from the vertically connected vertices but that would be $1+iy$ right?
The total contour will be;
$$\oint\frac{dz}{z}=\int_{1+i}^{1-2i}\frac{dz}{z}+\int_{1-2i}^{-2+i}\frac{dz}{z}+\int_{-2+i}^{1+i}\frac{dz}{z}$$
For the first integral, we apply the substitution $z=1-ti$ which yields;
$$\int_{-1}^{2}\frac{-i}{1-ti}dt$$
The second integral will recieve the substitution $z=-(1+t)+ti$;
$$\int_{-2}^{1}\frac{-1+i}{-(1+t)+ti}dt=\int_{-2}^{1}\frac{-1+i}{-1+t(-1+i)}dt=\int_{-2}^{1}\frac{-1+i}{(-1+i)-i+t(-1+i)}dt=\int_{-2}^{1}\frac{1}{(1+t)-i}dt$$
The final integral will recieve the substitution $z=t+i$;
$$\int_{-2}^{1}\frac{1}{t+i}dt$$
Now, we can manipulate our second integral by applying another substitution of $m=-(1+t)$. This will yield;
$$\int_{-2}^{1}\frac{1}{(1+t)-i}dt\rightarrow\int_{1}^{-2}\frac{1}{m+i}dm$$
So, in total we will have;
$$\oint\frac{dz}{z}=\int_{-1}^{2}\frac{-i}{1-ti}dt+\int_{1}^{-2}\frac{1}{m+i}dm+\int_{-2}^{1}\frac{1}{t+i}dt$$
The last two integrals clearly cancel each other and we are left with;
$$\oint\frac{dz}{z}=\int_{-1}^{2}\frac{-i}{1-ti}dt$$
as your professor had claimed.