In the Navier-Stokes equations, there's a well-known convective term of the form: \begin{equation}(\mathbf{v}\cdot\nabla)\mathbf{v}\end{equation} I'm not able to understand it. As far as I know, the nabla operator is, as it name says, an operator, not simply an element of $\mathbb{R}^3$, it maps between function spaces. Therefore, notations for divergence and curl in terms of nabla are just useful, not rigurous.
So how in the world does this term make sense? Maybe there's a better definition for nabla, because, using the most popular one, this seems really strange. But, it's from Navier-Stokes, so, obviously, there's something I'm missing here.
Let it be noted, I'm not studying Navier-Stokes, so, physical interpretations and motivations for the term are not my main concern here. Actually, I just need to understand in order to lucidly prove this identity: \begin{equation}\nabla\times(\mathbf{v}\cdot\nabla)\mathbf{v}=-\nabla\times[\mathbf v\times(\nabla\times\mathbf v)] \end{equation} So, as though as I wish to understand why this term is written like that, it's not particularly important for me, right now, to dive too much into the hydrodynamics.
Any help will be appreciated.
In vector calculus there are a lot of times we treat $\nabla$ like it's a vector just for simplicity in notations. as you mentioned it's not an element of $\mathbb{R}^3$. but for example (using Einstein notation for summation): $$(\vec{a}.\nabla)\vec{b} = a_i \partial_i b_j \hat{e}_j $$ in which $\hat{e}_j$ is canonical basis of $\mathbb{R}^3$ (another notation $\{ \hat{i},\hat{j},\hat{k}\}$) and $\partial_i = \frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}$.
inner product of $\mathbb{R}^n$ can be expressed as: $$ \vec{a}.\vec{b} = a_i b_i $$ and in $\mathbb{R}^3$ its outer product (cross product $\times$) can be expressed as : $$ \vec{a} \times \vec{b} = a_i b_i \epsilon_{ijk} \hat{e}_k $$ which $\epsilon_{ijk}$ is Levi-Civita symbol.
your later equality can be proved by this expressions!
we have $$ \vec{a} \times (\nabla \times \vec{b}) = \vec{a}.(\nabla \vec{b}) - (\vec{a}.\nabla)\vec{b}. \tag{1} $$ $\vec{a}.(\nabla \vec{b})$ again is a notation for $a_i (\partial_k b_i) \hat{e}_k$. Using this we can see: $$ \vec{v}\times(\nabla \times \vec{v})+(\vec{v}.\nabla)\vec{v} = \vec{v}.(\nabla\vec{v}). \tag{2} $$ Knowing (2) you can see proving $\nabla \times \{ \vec{v}.(\nabla \vec{v}) \}=0$ is enough for proving your identity. $$ \nabla \times \{ \vec{v}.(\nabla \vec{v}) \} = \partial_i \big( \vec{v}.(\nabla \vec{v})\big)_j \epsilon_{ijk} \hat{e}_k = \partial_i \big( v_l \partial_j v_l \big)\epsilon_{ijk} \hat{e}_k \\ = (\partial_j v_l )(\partial_i v_l )\epsilon_{ijk} \hat{e}_k + v_l (\partial_i \partial_j v_l )\epsilon_{ijk} \hat{e}_k $$ in last line there are summations over $i,j,l,k$ and except $\epsilon_{ijk}$ they are symmetric on $i,j$ and we have $\epsilon_{ijk}=-\epsilon_{jik}$ so the result is $0$ . $\square$
proof of (1):
$$ \vec{a} \times (\nabla \times \vec{b}) = a_i \big( \nabla \times \vec{b})_j \epsilon_{ijk} \hat{e}_k = a_i (\partial_l b_m) \, \epsilon_{lmj}\epsilon_{ijk}\,\hat{e}_k = a_i (\partial_l b_m) \, \epsilon_{jlm}\epsilon_{jki}\,\hat{e}_k $$ using the identity : $$ \epsilon_{jlm}\epsilon_{jki} = \delta_{lk}\delta_{mi} - \delta_{li}\delta_{mk} $$ we have : $$ \vec{a} \times (\nabla \times \vec{b}) = \dots = a_i (\partial_l b_m) \delta_{lk}\delta_{mi} \hat{e}_k - a_i (\partial_l b_m) \delta_{li}\delta_{mk} \hat{e}_k \\ = a_i (\partial_k b_i) \hat{e}_k - a_i (\partial_i b_k) \hat{e}_k \\ =\vec{a}.(\nabla \vec{b}) - (\vec{a}.\nabla)\vec{b} $$