As far as I know, the fact that the series starts at $n=1$ is intentional, so I know I can immediately omit the case where $p\le0$.
I decided to use the alternating series test, so to show that the summand is decreasing in absolute value, I consider the function $f(x)=\dfrac{(\log x)^p}x$ and found that its derivative is positive for $x\in(1,e^p)$ and decreasing for $x>e^p$.
I also find that
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{(\log n)^p}n=0$$
via L'Hopital's rule.
But barring that doubt, it would seem the series converges for all $p>0$.
Yet when I check via Mathematica, I get
In[1]:= SumConvergence[(-1)^(n-1)Log[n]^p/n, n]
Out[1]= 1 + p < 0
I don't understand this result at all. When $p=0$ the series is clearly convergent and has a value of $\log2$. Larger values of $p$ also return summations in terms of the Euler-Mascheroni and Stieltjes constants. Perhaps this is a bug in the software?
So my question is,
Is my answer correct, and if not, where do I go wrong?
You're on the right track. The limit
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{(\log n)^p}n=0$$
should be one that's under your belt. How could the measly $\log n,$ no matter if raised to the zillionth power, compete with any power of $n?$ I'm not sure why you're having trouble with L'Hopital. Both top and bottom $\to \infty$ right? So apply monsieur L'Hopital. You get $p(\log n)^{p-1}/n.$ If $p\le 1,$ you're done, as the last expression $\to 0.$ If not, apply LHR again. Clearly after a finite number of phone calls to the good marquis, you'll get a limit of $0.$