Usually, when we try to determine convergence/divergence, we simply find the quotient $k$, and if $|k|<1$ we say the series is convergent. At least this is how the textbooks present it.
In set notation, this is the same as saying $k \in (-1, 1)$, but I don't understand why this set has to be open.
I can understand that $k = -1$ wouldn't be seen as convergent, as it would change sign every time. But shouldn't $k = 1$ be considered to yield convergence? Obviously, finding the $n$th term would be a trivial matter, but at least it would be known.
Should we not say that convergence is found when $k \in (-1, 1]$?
The geometric sequence $\{k^n\}$ converges for $k \in (-1,1]$. Namely for $k \in (-1,1)$ it converges to $0$ and for $k = 1$ it converges to $1$.
The geometric series $\sum_{n=0}^\infty k^n$ converges for $k \in (-1,1)$ (to $\frac{1}{1-k}$) only.
For example, for $k=1$ we have $\sum_{j=0}^n 1^j = \sum_{j=0}^n 1 = n+1$ which diverges to $\infty$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$.