I am not finding any path to solve it. Online calculators are not helping either... The answer is it converges and converges to 0.
I believe it is the same as the result of $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac1x\times\frac{(2x)!}{4^x\times(x!)^2}$$
I got the idea above by multiplying $a_n$ by ($\frac{2\cdot4\cdot\ldots\cdot2n}{2\cdot4\cdot\ldots\cdot2n}$)
I will rewrite $a_{n}$ for clarity. $$a_{n}=\frac{1}{n}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)\cdot\dots\cdot\left(\frac{2n-1}{2n}\right).$$
Notice that the biggest term in this product is $\frac{2n-1}{2n}$ (except for when $n=1$). This means that if we multiply $\frac{2n-1}{2n}$ by itself $n$ times, then $$0\le a_{n}=\frac{1}{n}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)\cdot\dots\cdot\left(\frac{2n-1}{2n}\right)\le b_{n}=\frac{1}{n}\left(\frac{2n-1}{2n}\right)^{n}.$$
Taking the limit of the right side, we have $$\lim_{n\to\infty}b_{n}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\left(\frac{2n-1}{2n}\right)^{n}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\cdot\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{2n-1}{2n}\right)^{n}.$$
To evaluate $\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(\frac{2n-1}{2n}\right)^{n}$, notice that it is equivalent to $$\lim_{n\to\infty}e^{\ln\left(\left(\frac{2n-1}{2n}\right)^{n}\right)}=\lim_{n\to\infty}e^{n\ln\left(1-\frac{1}{2n}\right)}=\lim_{n\to\infty}e^{\frac{\ln\left(1-\frac{1}{2n}\right)}{1/n}}=e^{\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\ln\left(1-\frac{1}{2n}\right)}{1/n}}$$
Using L'Hospital's rule, we get $$e^{\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1/\left(2n^{2}\right)}{-1/n^{2}}}=e^{\lim_{n\to\infty}-\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{e}}.$$
Thus, $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\left(\frac{2n-1}{2n}\right)^{n}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\frac{1}{\sqrt{e}}=0.$$
But remember that this is our upper-bound for $a_{n}$, and so by the Squeeze theorem, $$\lim_{n\to\infty}0\le\lim_{n\to\infty}a_{n}\le\lim_{n\to\infty}b_{n}\implies0\le\lim_{n\to\infty}a_{n}\le0.$$
Thus, the limit is $0$.