i want to study the convergence of $(v_n=\frac{1}{n})_n$ in the topology endowed with $$\mathcal{B}=\{(a,b], a<b, a,b\in\mathbb{R}\}$$
i say let $l\in\mathbb{R}$
if $l\leq0$ then $l$ is not a limit because $\frac1n\notin(a,l], a<l$
if $l=1$ there exists $a=\frac12$ such that there is only $v_1\in (\frac12,1]$ so $1$ is not a limit.
How to do the case $l>0$ in general please ?
Let $0<l$. Then, $0<\frac{l}{2}<l$ so the open ball $B = (\frac{l}{2},l]$ contains $l$. Choose $N$ such that $\frac{1}{N} < \frac{l}{2}$. Then, for all $n>N$, we have that $v_n\not\in B$ because $v_n=\frac{1}{n}<\frac{l}{2}$. Thus $l$ is not a limit of the sequence (because there exists a neighborhood of $l$ with only finitely many $v_n$ terms). So the sequence does not converge (in this space, under this topology).