Show that a sequence $(x_1^n,x_2^n)$ in $\mathbb{R}^p\times\mathbb{R}^q$ converges to $(x_1,x_2)$ iff the same thing happens when we consider the sequence as belonging to $\mathbb{R}^{p+q}$.
I am not able to understand the notations used, neither how to proceed.
Here are my beginner questions:-
- Is $(x_1^n)$ a sequence in $\mathbb{R}^p$ ?
- Why indexing for sequencing is in superscript, instead of subscript (as is usual) ?
- Is $x_1^1$ a vector in $\mathbb{R}^p$ ?
- How can $(x_1^n,x_2^n)$ be a sequence in $\mathbb{R}^{p+q}$ ? (since it is a pair).
Also, please provide me pointers to begin the proof.
1) Yes.
2) If you want to consider a sequence in $\mathbb R^{p}$ it is natural to use superscripts because each element of the sequence already has coordinates. We use subscripts for the coordinates.
3)Yes
4) If $x=(x_1,x_2,...,x_p) \in \mathbb R^{p}$ and $y=(y_1,y_2,...,y_q) \in\mathbb R^{q}$ the notation $(x,y)$ is often used as an abbreviation for $(x_1,x_2,...,x_p,y_1,y_2,...,y_q)$ which is an element of $\mathbb R^{p+q}$
For a proof use the following: if $x$ and $y$ are as above then $\|(x,y)\|=\sqrt {\|x\|^{2}+\|y\|^{2}}$.
Hence the distance between $(x_1^{n},y_1^{n})$ and $(x,y)$ is $\sqrt {\|x_1^{n}-x\|^{2}+\|y_1^{n}-y\|^{2}}$ which tends to $0$ iff both $\|x_1^{n}-x\|^{2}$ and $\|y_1^{n}-y\|^{2}$ tend to $0$.