Consider the following series:
$\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(n+1)e^{in\phi}}{n^2}, \phi \in \mathbb{R}, \phi ≠ 2\pi k$ for $k \in \mathbb{Z}$
Then:
$\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(n+1)e^{in\phi}}{n^2} = \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{e^{in\phi}}{n} + \frac{e^{in\phi}}{n^2} $
Form the respective lecture of my math course I know that
$\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{e^{in\phi}}{n}$ converges.
But I don't know how to make use of that nor do I know how to formulate the proof whether the series is convergent or even absolutely convergent.
That's the sum of two series ofr which the second one converges absolutely. And you know that the first one converges. So, your series converges.