Let $\beta_m\searrow 0$ such that $\alpha_m:=\beta_m-\beta_{m+1}\searrow 0$.
Define $b_n:=\inf\{m:\alpha_m<2^{-n}\}$. Is it true that $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{b_n}{2^n}<\infty? $$
For example, if $\beta_m=\frac 1 m$, then $b_n\sim 2^{n/2}$, so that the above series converges.
A critical case is when $\beta_m=1/\log m$, whence $\alpha_m\sim 1/m(\log m)^2$, and $b_n\sim 2^n/n^2$, so the series converges.
Edited: I am sorry I had a typo: I meant $\beta_m:=1/\log m$, not $\alpha_m:=1/\log m$. In the latter case, this is a simple question. However, it is not in the former case.
Your critical case $ \alpha_{m} = \frac{1}{\lg(m)} $ is a counter-example.
Notice that $ b_{n} = 2^{(2^{n+1})} $, since we have
$$ \frac{1}{\lg(m)} < 2^{-n} \implies m > 2^{(2^{n})} $$
and $\alpha_{m}$ is monotonous.
Therefore,
$$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{2^{(2^{n+1})}}{2^{n}} = \infty $$
Actually, it is more than critical, we could make the it diverge with much less.