I want to determine if the integral
$ \intop_{2}^{\infty}\frac{x-\left \lfloor{x}\right \rfloor-\frac{1}{2}}{\ln x} $ converges, and to determine if its absolute convergence or in condition.
Here's what I tried:
notice that
$ |\intop_{2}^{t}\left(x-\left\lfloor {x}\right\rfloor -\frac{1}{2}\right)dx|\leq|\intop_{2}^{\left\lfloor t\right\rfloor }\left(x-\left\lfloor {x}\right\rfloor -\frac{1}{2}\right)|+|\intop_{\left\lfloor t\right\rfloor }^{t}\left(x-\left\lfloor {x}\right\rfloor -\frac{1}{2}\right)|\leq0+1 $
and my explanation for the claim
$ |\intop_{2}^{\left\lfloor t\right\rfloor }\left(x-\left\lfloor {x}\right\rfloor -\frac{1}{2}\right)|=0 $
Also, $ \frac{1}{\ln x} $ is monotonic and $ \lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{1}{\ln x}=0 $.
Thus, from Dirichlet's test, the integral converges.
My questions are:
- How to prove my point (that the red area is always 0 for the natural numbers) in an algebric formal way ?
- How to determine if this integral is absolute convergent or just in condition ?
Thanks in advance.

$$-\frac{1}{8}\leq \int_{0}^{t}\{x\}-\frac{1}{2}\,dx \leq 0$$
and the absolute value of (the fraction part of $x$ minus $\frac{1}{2}$) is a continous function with a positive mean value ($\frac{1}{4}$), hence the integral is convergent by Dirichlet's test but it is not absolutely convergent by summation by parts.