Suppose we have a sequence $(a_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ with $a_n>0$ and $a_{n+1}\geq a_n$ for all $n\in\mathbb N$.
Then, I want to prove that $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(\frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_n}\right)\text{ converges}\quad\implies\quad (a_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}\text{ is bounded}.$$
I tried to prove this by contradiction and using inequalities, but I never arrived at a divergent series.
We use the easy result that if $c_n \ge 0, \Sigma{c_n} < \infty$ if and only if $\Sigma{\log (1+c_n)} < \infty$ with $c_n=(\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1)$ which imediately implies $\log{a_n}$, hence $a_n$ bounded
($\frac{x}{2} \le \log(1+x) \le x, 0 \le x \le 1$ and each convergence in the iff above, implies $c_n \le 1$ eventually)