Hello.
The above problem is what I am working on and there is something that I would like to clarify, or at least ask for opinions regarding this.
From transformation I obtained
$$f_Z(z) = n \left( \frac{5z^4}{n^{5p}} \right) \left[ 1+\frac{-z^5}{n^{5p}} \right]^{n-1}$$
which is not too difficult to say that if $p=\frac{1}{5}$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$
$$f_Z(z) \rightarrow 5z^4e^{-z^5}$$
and since $0<x<1$ becomes $0<z<\infty$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$ I also see that indeed it is a probability distribution.
What I wonder here, though, is that is this the only $p$ that satisfies that?
From the problem it is suggestive that if $p \ne \frac{1}{5}$ it would not converge in probability anymore.
Any thoughts?

Your intuition is (almost) spot-on.
First a recap. Assume you have two sequences: $Y_n\overset{d}{\to}Y$ and $T_n\overset{d}{\to}0$, then we get $(Y_n,T_n)\overset{d}{\to}(Y,0)$. By the continuous mapping theorem then implies $Y_nT_n\overset{d}{\to}Y\cdot 0=0$. For our purposes, the sequence $\{T_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ is going to be deterministic.
Your problem. Let $Z$ be the limit you obtain when $p=\frac{1}{5}$.