I have posted the problem below. I know that this question has been asked before but I have a question about the proof.
I wrote the expression in polar form as $f(z)=e^z$ and to check injectivity I assumed that $f(z_1)=f(z_2)$ which gives $e^{z_1}=e^{z_2}$. Is that enough to conclude that $z_1=z_2$? Or should I rewrite the functions as $e^{z_1}=e^{x_1}\cos{y}+ie^{x_1}\sin{y}$? The first case I doesn't consider the restriction on $y$ and then if that's the case then it seems pointless to have converted to complex form.

You can also prove the statement without resorting to complex numbers: suppose $$ (e^a\cos b,e^a\sin b)=(e^c\cos d,e^c\sin d) $$ Then $$ (e^a\cos b)^2+(e^a\sin b)^2=(e^c\cos d)^2+(e^c\sin d)^2 $$ which implies $e^{2a}=e^{2c}$, so $a=c$. Therefore $$ \begin{cases} \cos b=\cos d \\ \sin b=\sin d \end{cases} $$ so $b=d+2k\pi$, for some integer $k$. Can $k$ be nonzero?
With complex numbers: suppose $e^{z}=e^{w}$; then $e^{z-w}=1$. Thus $z-w=2ki\pi$ for some integer $k$. In particular, the real parts of $z$ and $w$ are equal. Can you finish?