Could anyone tell me where $f(n(a-b))$ came from? The thing is easy when there's $f(x)$ instead of $f(nx)$ - the result would be $f(a-b)$. Thanks in advance.
2026-04-05 19:23:24.1775417004
Convolution of a function and Dirac delta - special case
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Try substituting $g(x)=f(nx)$. Then your integral is $g(a-b)=f(n(a-b))$.