Is there a general approach to solve the convolution \begin{align} (f*g)(x) & = \int_{-\infty}^\infty f(t)g(x-t)\,dt \end{align} if the individual integrals $\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(t)\,dt, \; \int_{-\infty}^\infty g(t)\,dt $ are known?
(In my particular case $f$ and $g$ have support on $[0, T]$ only.)
Thanks!
It is just a matter of finding the integral on RHS and knowledge of the integrals you mention is not useful.
If $f$ and $g$ have support $[0,T]$ then the result will be the same if $f$ is replaced by $f\mathbf1_{[0,T]}$ and $g$ by $g\mathbf1_{[0,T]}$.
Now observe that: $$f(x)\mathbf1_{[0,T]}(x)g(x-t)\mathbf1_{[0,T]}(x-t)\neq0\implies$$$$ t\in[0,T]\cap[x-T,x]=[\max(0,x-T),\min(T,x)]$$ showing that it is handsome to discern cases: