I would like to know whether my proof makes sense or not, and if not where should it be corrected.
Let $E=\{x \text{ is rational }: x>0 \text{ and } x^2<2\}.$
Claim: Every member of $F=\{x \text{ is rational }: x>0 \text{ and } x^2>2\}$ is an upper bound for set $E$.
Proof:
$F$ is an upper bound of $E$ if all elements of $F$ are greater than or equal to all elements in $E$.
I drew a number line outlining sets $F$ and $E$ in relative positions. My number line shows $E$ being the set greater than $0$ and up to $\sqrt2$ noninclusive and F being the set excluding $\sqrt2$ all the way to infinity.
By contradiction let's assume there is at least one member of $F$ that is not an upper bound for set $E$. This means there exists a rational $y$ s.t. $0<y<\sqrt2$. This means $y$ is now part of set $E$ and the only way it can be an upper bound is if $y=\sqrt2$, which it cannot, based on the rules of set $E$. So we have a contradiction and $y$ has to be an upper bound.
You can prove this directly without contradiction by using the fact that $x^{2}$ is an increasing function if $x > 0$. This means if $t \in F$, we have $t^{2} > 2$. So for any $s \in E$, since $s^{2} < 2$, this gives $s^{2} < t^{2}$. But since $s$ and $t$ are both positive and $x^{2}$ is an increasing function, this implies $s < t$. Since this is true for all $s \in E$, $t$ is an upper bound for $E$, as desired.
Having said that, I think your argument could be tweaked a little bit in the following way: As you said, suppose there is at least one member $y$ of $F$ that is not an upper bound for the set $E$, then this means there is some $g \in E$ such that $y < g$. But $g^{2} < 2$, and $x^{2}$ is an increasing function if $x > 0$, which implies $y^{2} < 2$. But this is a contradiction to the fact that $y \in F$ since $y \in F$ implies $y^{2} > 2$, and we can't have both $y^{2} > 2$ and $y^{2} < 2$ be true.