If I have $\cot(k(x-a+π+π/k))$
Then, is
$\cot(kx-ka+kπ+π)=\cot(kx-ka+kπ)=\cot(k(x-a+π))=\cot(k(x-a))$
correct if I use $\cot(a+π)=\cot(a)$ property?
2026-05-06 01:20:02.1778030402
Cotangent property
42 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in TRIGONOMETRY
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