Could you please explain the detail of the proof

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Proposition:enter image description here Proof: enter image description here

Question: Why it's isomorphism?

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Define a homomorphism $f: S^{-1} A \rightarrow \bar{S}^{-1} (A/p)$ by sending $a/s$ to $\bar{a}/\bar{s}$ where $\bar{a}$ denotes the class of $a$ modulo $p$. Then show that this homomorphism is surjective and that its kernel is precisely $S^{-1} p$.