Let $f \in \mathcal{L}^1(X)$ and $X = \cup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} A_n$ with measurable sets $A_n$ such that $\mu(A_i \cap A_j) = 0$ if $i \neq j$. Show that $$ \int_X f \mathrm{d} \mu = \sum_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \int_{A_n} f \mathrm{d} \mu. $$ This is a homework question that I'm not able to solve. It has been discussed in other threads (and I understand the ideas there) for the case that the $A_i$ are pairwise disjoint (and not just disjoint almost everywhere). Maybe someone can provide me with a hint in right direction. It is obvious that this question wants me to apply monotone/ dominating convergence theorem but I just can't figure out how.
Thank you in advance.
I will try and get you started.
As you mentioned, you should use one of the convergence theorems. So let's construct a sequence of functions so we may apply it. First, let $f_n=f\chi_{E_n}$ where $E_n=\bigcup_{k=1}^n A_k$.
We see that $f_n \rightarrow f$ pointwise as $n \rightarrow \infty$
We also have that every term of the sequence has absolute value bounded above by an $L^1$ function.
i.e. $|f_n| \leq |f|$ with $|f| \in L^1$
So we realize that we meet the conditions of the dominated convergence theorem.
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \int f_n d\mu=\int f d\mu$$
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \int f \chi_{\cup_n A_n}d\mu=\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \int f (\sum_k^n \chi_{A_k}-\sum_{i,j i \neq j}^n \chi_{A_i \cap A_j})d \mu $$
Try and go from here. Good luck