Edited:
I'm having trouble finding a counterexample for these incorrect statements:
- If $\sum a_k$ converges and $\frac{a_k}{b_k} \to 1$ then $\sum b_k$ converges
- If $\lim_{k \to \infty} \frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k} \to L$ where $L > 1$ then the series $\sum a_k$ diverges
In the first one, the condition for convergence here needs $a_k$ and $b_k$ to be strictly positives as stated in the limit form comparison test. But I can't find a suitable negative series which following that statement diverges.
In the second one, the problem is that the absolute value is missing in the limit. I thought that I found a counterexample in $(-1)^{n-1}(-2)^n$ but I realised it diverges.
Any help? Thank you
For the first:
You don't want negative sequences, as the theorem would still apply (since $\sum_n a_n$ converges if and only if $\sum_n (-a_n)$ does).
So you need at least one of the two sequences to be alternating. The simple is then to fix the first, $(a_n)_n$, to be simple: like $a_n \stackrel{\rm def}{=} \frac{(-1)^n}{n}$, one of the simplest alternating convergent series that come to mind.
We do have (1) $(a_n)_n$ has alternating sign and (2) $\sum_n a_n$ is convergent. So how to choose $(b_n)_n$ now?
Well, we need $b_n = a_n + c_n$ and $\sum_n b_n$ divergent, so the $c_n$ term must (1) be such that $c_n = o(a_n)$ and (2) $\sum_n c_n$ diverges. Again, let's go for something simple: $c_n \stackrel{\rm def}{=} \frac{1}{n \ln n}$ does the job.
Summary: choosing (for $n\geq 2$) $$ a_n = \frac{(-1)^n}{n}, \qquad b_n = \frac{(-1)^n}{n} + \frac{1}{n\ln n} $$ works.
For the second: the statement is correct. Namely, it's easy to show that then we cannot have$^{(\dagger)}$ $\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n = 0$, which is a necessary condition for convergence.
$(\dagger)$ specifically, we then have $\lim_{n\to\infty} \lvert a_n\rvert = \infty$.