I was wondering if there is counting argument to compute the following difference?
$$\binom{n}{k} - \binom{\frac{n}{m}}{\frac{k}{m}}^m,$$
where m divides k and n. Obviously $\binom{n}{k}$ is the number of ways to choose $k$ elements from a set of $n$ elements. The second term $\binom{\frac{n}{m}}{\frac{k}{m}}^m$ can be related to this. If we first split the $n$ elements into $m$ equal sized groups, then is the number of ways to choose $k$ elements such that exactly $\frac{k}{m}$ are chosen from each of the $m$ groups
So, if the set of $n$ elements can be split into $m$ groups of size $\frac{n}{m}$ each and also $m \mid k$, the difference $\displaystyle \binom{n}{k}-\binom{\frac{n}{m}}{\frac{k}{m}}^m $ is the number of ways to choose $k$ elements from the set of $n$ elements such that the numbers of elements chosen from each of the $m$ groups are not all the same.