I am presented with the following problem:
Prove that: $$\left(n+\frac{1}{2}\right) \left(n-\frac{1}{2}\right)\left(n-\frac{3}{2}\right)\cdots\frac{3}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{2} = \frac{(2n+1)!}{2^{2n+1}n!}$$
The first steps I'm aware of are:
$$\frac{1}{2^{n+1}}(2n+1)(2n-1)\cdots 3\cdot1$$ I know from here I can then manipulate factorials and such to get the desired result.
My question is:
In a general sense for products like this, how can one tell that there are $n+1$ factors here (hence the power on the denominator), instead of $n$, or $n-1$?
I've tried to explain it to myself with the gamma function (i.e. that $\Gamma(n+1)$ has $n$ terms for integer n), but I'm not too certain if my logic is correct here.
Any help appreciated!
The product here can be rewritten as $$\left(n+ \frac{1}{2} \right)\left((n-1)+ \frac{1}{2} \right)\left((n-2)+ \frac{1}{2} \right)...\left(1+ \frac{1}{2} \right)\left(0+ \frac{1}{2} \right)$$
The number of factors is clearly the numbers of integers between $0$ and $n$, i.e. $n+1$.