"Joy of Sets" on p.26 states [as one criterion] that a non-empty set $I$ of a Boolean algebra $B$ is called an ideal if and only if:
$b, c\in I\rightarrow b\vee c\in I$
If $b$ and $c$ are in $I$, how is it possible that $b\vee c$ not be an element of $I$?
Thanks
EDIT The text says:
It is possible to define a boolean algebra as a poset satisfying certain conditions. In this case $b\vee c$ turns out to be the unique least upper bound of $b$ and $c$, and $b\wedge c$ is the unique greatest lower bound.
Then the text goes into a set of problems on Ideals and Filters from which I asked my question.
In a Boolean algebra, or a lattice in general, $b\vee c$ need not be equal to $b$ or $c$. Only when the underlying partial order is total do we have this in general. For example, in the Boolean algebra of subsets of $\{0,1\}$, $\{0\}\vee\{1\}=\{0\}\cup\{1\}=\{0,1\}$ which is not equal to either $\{0\}$ or $\{1\}$. So the set $\{\emptyset,\{0\},\{1\}\}$ is a subset which is downward closed but is not an ideal of ${\mathcal P}(\{0,1\})$.