Consider two orthogonal nonzero vectors $\vec{B}=(p,q,r)$ and $\vec{C}=(u,v,w)$. How to prove algebraically that if vector $\vec{A}=(a,b,c)$ satisfies $\vec{A}\times \vec{B}=\vec{A}\times\vec{C}=\vec{0}$, then $\vec{A}=\vec{0}$?
For example, if $\vec{B}=\hat{i}$ and $\vec{C}=\hat{j}$, we have
$$\begin{bmatrix} a\\b\\c\end{bmatrix} \times \begin{bmatrix} 1\\0\\0\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0\\c\\-b\end{bmatrix}$$
$$\begin{bmatrix} a\\b\\c\end{bmatrix} \times \begin{bmatrix} 0\\1\\0\end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -c\\0\\a\end{bmatrix}$$
Thus $a=b=c=0$.
What about the general case?
Do a change of basis. Consider the basis $B=\{e_1,e_2,e_3\}$, with $e_1=\vec B$, $e_2=\vec C$, and $e_3=\vec B\times\vec C$. Then you know that $\vec A\times e_1=\vec A\times e_2=0$. If $A=a_1e_1+a_2e_2+a_3e_3$, then this means that $a=b=c=0$, since $\vec A\times e_1=(0,c,-b)_B$ and $A\times e_2=(-c,0,a)_B$.