Suppose we have C$^{*}$-algebras $A$ and $B$ and a $*$-homomorphism $\phi\colon A\to B$. I came across a paper, where it was claimed that every irreducible representation of $B$ decomposes into a direct sum of a unique set of irreducible representations of $A$.
I am confused as to how we actually do this. If $\pi$ is a representation of $B$, then, clearly, $\pi\circ\phi$ is a representation of $A$. I am aware that every non-degenerate representation decomposes as a direct sum of cyclic representations, but this is not the same thing.
Any help would be much appreciated.
As stated, I don't think the assertion makes sense. Consider for instance $A=C[0,1]$, $B=C[0,1]\oplus M_2(\mathbb C)$, and $$ \phi(x)=(x,x(0)I),\ \ \ \ \pi(x,M)=M. $$ Then $\pi $ is irreducible, but there is no natural way to see it as a sum of representations of $A$ (which are all point evaluations).
What does hold is that $\pi\circ\phi$ is a representation of $A$ and, at least in the separable case, every representation is a direct sum of irreducibles. This is a nontrivial result, see for instance Corollary II.5.9 in Davidson's book. I think that the general version follows from work by Hadwin, but I don't have a reference.