Deducing Lindemann-Weierstrass from Baker's theorem

Question

I'm aware that Baker's theorem with $n=1$ (for one algebraic number only) follows from that of Lindemann-Weierstrass.

It is also often mentioned that Baker's result is a generalization of Lindemann-Weierstrass's.

How do you prove that implication?

Any reference or sketch for a proof would be appreaciated.