If $a$ is a transcendental number (i.e., a number s.t. there does not exist a polynomial $P(x)$ s.t. $P(a) = 0$), is $a^n$ also transcendental?
It would seem to me that it should be, but I can't figure out why. How would I prove this?
If $a$ is a transcendental number (i.e., a number s.t. there does not exist a polynomial $P(x)$ s.t. $P(a) = 0$), is $a^n$ also transcendental?
It would seem to me that it should be, but I can't figure out why. How would I prove this?
If $p(a^n)=0$ for some polynomial $p(x)$, let $q(x)=p(x^n)$ and observe that $$q(a)=p(a^n)=0.$$ Hence, if $a^n$ is algebraic, so is $a$.