Let $ x \in S^{n-1}$ and a positive definite matrix $M \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times n}$. Define $$P := I - (x^T M^{-1} x)^{-1} M^{-1} xx^T$$ and $Q := M^{-1} P^T$. Is $Q$ positive semi definite?
(I figured out it is symmetric since $M P M^{-1} = P^T$ but I may be wrong)
So far
I noticed that for any vector $v$ perpendicular to $M^{-1} x $ we have
$$\begin{eqnarray} Qv &=& M^{-1} P^Tv \nonumber \\ &=& M^{-1} (I - (x^T M^{-1} x)^{-1}xx^T M^{-1} ) v \nonumber \\ &=& M^{-1}v \nonumber \end{eqnarray}$$
and then, since $M$ is positive definite, we have $v^T Qv = v^T M^{-1} v > 0$ This gives us at least $n-1$ linearly independent vectors for which $v^T Qv > 0$. If these were eigenvectors of $M^{-1}$ then it would have implied that we have $n-1$ positive eigenvalues, which leaves us with only one eigenpair to worry about. This is not the case, but I suppose we can somehow utilise this information.
Moreover, $Q$ as a non empty null space, as $ P^T x = 0$. And from that I infer that $x$ is not orthogonal to $M^{-1} x$.
Synthetic simulations suggests that $Q$ is indeed positive semi-definite with kernel dimension 1 (up to machine precision), but there's always the chance for a bug in the code and that some edge cases were missed.
Is there anything else that I'm missing? Is this statement possible to prove/ disprove given the information supplied?
Note that $Q=M^{-1}-(x^T M^{-1} x)^{-1} M^{-1}xx^TM^{-1}$ is symmetric. Also, by Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, \begin{align} v^TQv &=v^TM^{-1}v-(x^T M^{-1} x)^{-1}v^TM^{-1}xx^TM^{-1}v\\ &=\frac{(v^TM^{-1}v)(x^TM^{-1}x)-(v^TM^{-1}x)^2}{x^TM^{-1}x}\\ &=\frac{\|M^{-1/2}v\|^2\|M^{-1/2}x\|^2-\langle M^{-1/2}v,M^{-1/2}x\rangle^2}{\|M^{-1/2}x\|^2}\ge0\tag{1} \end{align} for any vector $v$. Therefore $Q$ is positive semidefinite. However, it is not positive definite, because $x^TQx=0$ (i.e. equality holds in $(1)$ when $v=x$).
Alternatively, note that $Q$ is the Schur complement of $x^TM^{-1}x$ in $$ A=\pmatrix{M^{-1}&M^{-1}x\\ x^TM^{-1}&x^TM^{-1}x}=\pmatrix{M^{-1/2}\\ x^TM^{-1/2}}\pmatrix{M^{-1/2}&M^{-1/2}x}. $$ Since $x^TM^{-1}x>0$ but $A$ is positive semidefinite and singular, $Q$ is positive semidefinite and singular too.