In this article https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homeomorphism
The definition of a homeomorphism is stated as follows:
A function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ between two topological spaces $(X,T_X)$ and $(Y, T_Y)$ is called a ''homeomorphism'' if it has the following properties:
$f$ is a bijection,
$f$ is continuous,
the inverse function $f^{-1}$ is continuous.
Now what if we have the same space $X$ but with two given topologies $T_X$ and $T^{'}_X$ can we say from the definition that $(X,T_X)$ and $(X,T^{'}_X)$ are homeomorphic if and only if $T_X=T^{'}_X$ ?
No; consider the set $X=\{0,1\}$ with the topologies $$T_X=\{\varnothing,\{1\},X\} \qquad\text{ and }\qquad T_X'=\{\varnothing,\{0\},X\}.$$ Then $T_X\neq T_X'$ but the bijection $$(X,T_X)\ \longmapsto\ (X,T_X'):\ x\ \mapsto\ 1-x,$$ is a homeomorphism.