In John Lee's book Riemannian Manifolds, a covering transformation (or deck transformation) of a smooth covering map $\pi:\tilde{M}\to M$ (of connected smooth manifolds) is defined to be a smooth map $\varphi:\tilde{M}\to\tilde{M}$ such that $\pi\circ\varphi=\pi$.
I was expecting that the definition includes the additional assumption that $\varphi$ is a diffeomorphism, but apparently John Lee doesn't include it in his definition.
Question: Does this definition imply that $\varphi$ is a diffeomorphism?
It is clearly at least an immersion ($d\varphi$ is everywhere injective) because $d\pi\circ d\varphi=d\pi$ and $\pi$ is a local diffeomorphism. Moreover, $\varphi$ maps $\tilde{M}$ to itself, so $d\varphi$ is bijective everywhere. Hence it would suffices to show that $\varphi$ is bijective. Is that the case?
I thought the following was all true and perfectly standard just for topological covering maps $\pi$: If we say a deck transformation is just a continuous $\phi$ with $\pi\circ\phi=\pi$ then the deck transformations form a group, and in particular each one is bijective.
(Right? Say $\phi(p)=q$. You can certainly find a $\psi$ defined only in some neighborhood of $q$ so that $\psi(\phi(x))=x$ near $q$. Now you can "continue" $\psi$ to something global, and the discreteness of the fibers shows that $\psi(\phi(x))=x$ globally...)