I have a question about the following argument. I see in my book a claim that given 2 stochastic integrals :
\begin{align}X_1&:=\int_{0}^{t}f_s\mathsf dM_s\\ X_2&:=\int_{0}^{t}g_s\mathsf dN_s \end{align}
$N,M$ are some continuous local martingales then
$$\langle X_1,X_2\rangle_t=\int_{0}^{t}f_s g_s \mathsf d\langle M,N\rangle _s$$
What does the notation $ \mathsf d\langle M,N\rangle_s$ means in the sense of quadratic variation and how they got it here?
Thank you.
$\langle M,N \rangle$ is the cross variation of two processes. It's typically defined with the polarization identity used to calculate a vector inner product from a vector norm:
From Karatzas + Shreve 2nd Edition, 1.5.5, page 31:
Then the $d\langle M,N \rangle$ notation is the cross variation function being used as an integrator in a Lebesgue-Stieltjes or Riemann-Stieltjes integral.